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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

15.06.2025 10:13

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Is it true that people who are possessed by demons cannot see them until the demon is cast out? What is the reason for this?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

For those who were actually old enough to have experienced the 1970s and not for those who were born in the 70s. What were the pros and cons of that era?

There's no rule.

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